KnuckleDragr
Active Member
Let's try this again
So I found myself in a discussion today about who can get these and why. I would like some of your opinions.
1. Why were these tags created? For farmers that SELL crops?
2. Tenants are allowed, but as long as they SELL crops?
3. How does one deem property "agricultural"? Do the crops HAVE to exist AND be sold?
4. If the land is zoned as agricultural, does it legally qualify?
I believe "farming" used as a verb is defined something like:
Act of growing crops or livestock
Doesn't necessarily say those crops must be sold. (According to the definition I looked up).
So all this leads us to a scenario:
Mr landowner owns 100 acres. 50 in timber, 50 in overgrown pasture. He plants several food plots totalling 20 acres. Food plots consist of several different species of plants. None of which are harvested for income. I know the regs aren't very clear on this, but does he qualify?
If you answered yes, let's pretend the same landowner leases the same land to a "tenant" who plants the exact same plots without selling his crops. Now does the tenant qualify?
The whole argument here is: what exactly does a landowner or tenant HAVE to do on their farm to be eligible for LOT tags?
One person in our discussion swears up and down that he could lease some ground, put in some food plots, and hunt his little heart out on a tenant tag. Now ethically speaking, he shouldn't be able to. But after really looking at the regs and looking at them from a literal point of view as they are written, and checking the dictionaries definition of farming, maybe he can. I know that most of us agree on how these tags SHOULD be used, but according to the wording of the regs, maybe he has a valid point. Legally. What do you all think?
So I found myself in a discussion today about who can get these and why. I would like some of your opinions.
1. Why were these tags created? For farmers that SELL crops?
2. Tenants are allowed, but as long as they SELL crops?
3. How does one deem property "agricultural"? Do the crops HAVE to exist AND be sold?
4. If the land is zoned as agricultural, does it legally qualify?
I believe "farming" used as a verb is defined something like:
Act of growing crops or livestock
Doesn't necessarily say those crops must be sold. (According to the definition I looked up).
So all this leads us to a scenario:
Mr landowner owns 100 acres. 50 in timber, 50 in overgrown pasture. He plants several food plots totalling 20 acres. Food plots consist of several different species of plants. None of which are harvested for income. I know the regs aren't very clear on this, but does he qualify?
If you answered yes, let's pretend the same landowner leases the same land to a "tenant" who plants the exact same plots without selling his crops. Now does the tenant qualify?
The whole argument here is: what exactly does a landowner or tenant HAVE to do on their farm to be eligible for LOT tags?
One person in our discussion swears up and down that he could lease some ground, put in some food plots, and hunt his little heart out on a tenant tag. Now ethically speaking, he shouldn't be able to. But after really looking at the regs and looking at them from a literal point of view as they are written, and checking the dictionaries definition of farming, maybe he can. I know that most of us agree on how these tags SHOULD be used, but according to the wording of the regs, maybe he has a valid point. Legally. What do you all think?